Tycho:
Does either the first commandment or Jesus' line about "no one comes to the father but through me" indicate a possible plural? I was under the impression that "me" in each case was singular. If that is not the case, that would be a rather important point which I don't think most mainstream christians are aware of.
For first commandment, it uses one word for "before me," so you can't say. It might as well say, "thou shalt have no other gods."
"acher elohiym paniym"
As for your other comment about the New Testament, the New Testament is written in Greek, so the same grammatical structure does not apply. (For the record, it is a singular "me" in Greek, but though I'd like to say that has meaning, I can't.)
EDIT: FYI, All of the books that would eventually form the New Testament were written in Koine Greek.
quote:
Is there anything in the old testament to indicate that God would change the rules over time?
I'm not sure I follow. There's not a change in rules but a progression to a higher law, just as a child's rules change as he becomes an adult. The key is the progression of the individual, not what the "rules" are.
quote:
Were there any examples of things in the OT that were formally disallowed but which God said "this isn't wrong anymore?"
Yes. Prior to Noah, eating any animals was not okay. They were vegetarians, so to speak. Then the rules about meat became more specific with the law of Moses.
quote:
If so, could one say that the ten commandments aren't...er...set in stone, and could change in the future?
Only change in that the higher law would be adhered to because they represent a lower law.
quote:
But Jews don't say "in the name of Jesus Christ" when they pray (excepting some examples such as Silveroak mentioned). They're going straight to the big guy, assuming they've got no need to use Jesus as a mediator. Is that fine, since Jesus is just the same guy, or is recognition of Jesus as a different concept than God the Father necessary?
You're confusing me. I thought you were talking about Christians.
quote:
Heath:
No, because the Muslims don't believe Jesus took upon him their sins and thus would not receive the forgiveness of sins required to enter heaven.
And neither do Jews, so it seems like if Muslims not believing Jesus took their sins keeps them out, the same would apply for Jews, no?
SOrry, I lost the argument by not seeing the first post. What was the first question?
quote:
If praying to a god other than God is a violation of the first commandment, it would seem that praying to Jesus would be a violation (or at least putting another god before God).
Except that you're not praying to Jesus. You're praying through Jesus to God. (If trinitarian, you probably believe you are praying through the aspect of Jesus as God to God the Creator.)
quote:
I don't think Jews today think that the Messiah will be the same guy as God, though (people can correct me on that if I'm wrong, though), nor that he'll be a gate keeper to heaven, or anything like that.
That's not what I was implying. To the Jews, the Messiah is not God. That's a Christian thing. What exactly the "Messiah" is actually would depend on the sect of the Jew, and what century we're talking about (e.g., the Israelites vs. modern Jews).
quote:
This is true, but I think that's an assumption shared by most mainstream and evangelical christians, which is more what I what I had in mind when I was noodling on this. I will accept that if people are allowed to change their ways/beliefs after death and make it into heaven based on those changes, that makes a very large difference in the line of reasoning.
Well, you need to pick Jews or Christians here. If Jew, there are different beliefs about the afterlife depending on the sect of the Jew.. If Christian, it depends on the denomination of the Christian.
This message was last edited by the GM at 00:25, Thu 10 June 2010.