Heath:
(1) Tradition: Virtually every Jewish man in Jesus' day did marry, especially those who were considered to be Rabbis. (And Jesus was often called "Rabbi.") In fact, it would be very bad form for a Rabbi to teach children if he was not married.
Of course, Jesus was only called a rabbi. The jewish people did not believe or accept Jesus, never mind accept him as a rabbi, or even give him some jewish position in the church. Nor did Jesus portray himself as a rabbi.
Matthew 19:10-12
10The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry."
11Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given. 12For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it."
Now Jesus was certainly for the Kingdom of Heaven. He is pointing marriage in
not a neccessity. Why say this unless showing it was ok to break tradition of jewish men being usually married?
Heath:
(2) Mary Magdalene is first mentioned as one of the women who accompanied Jesus on his preaching mission and helped to support him financially (Luke 8:1-3). Being included in Jesus' retinue is a very unusual fact. Jewish teachers in Jesus' day usually didn't teach women or include them as followers.
I don't understand this comment at all. It names several women who followed Jesus and his apostles. And specifies many other women too.(Does this mean they were also married to Jesus because they were mentioned?) Jesus did go against the jewish teachers be teaching women, but Jesus is a lot different than a jewish teacher, Jesus is the Son of God.
Heath:
(3) Mary Magdalene is mentioned specifically to be among the women who observe the crucifixion of Jesus (Mark 15:40).
Yea, and there was another Mary, and Salome. By the reasoning that Mary Magdalene is mentioned, then the other two are married to Jesus as well?
Heath:
(4) She is also one of the first to go to his tomb with a couple of female companions. They were going to anoint his body. By Hebrew law the ONLY women who can anoint a man are family members. For Mary Magdalene to even attempt to anoint Jesus would be unthinkable under Hebrew law, unless she was married to Jesus.
That's not entirely true. In Luke 7:36-50, Jesus was annointed by a woman with her own tears, perfume and hair.
http://www.biblegateway.com/cg...ssage=luke+7%3A36-50
Further, there was more than just Mary Magdalene going to annoit Jesus. It specifies Salome, and another Mary went to annoint Jesus. Again, by the reasoning you used, the other Mary and Salome
must mean that Salome, and the other Mary were married to Jesus then.
Heath:
(5) She is the first person Jesus appears to after resurrection. Why wouldn't he appear to his mother? His apostles? Why a female follower? It makes sense that he would appear to his wife first.
Actually the gospel accounts specify Mary in one case, while other accounts say appear to Mary and other women. Which makes sense, considering we have already established the women went to annoint him, and not just Mary Magdalene. As to why one book would say Mary Magdalene saw him first, and in other accounts would say that Jesus apeared to the women, could be something simple. Such as when you and your son are off for a walk. You spot a plane in the sky, and point it to your son. You saw the plane first, but still both you and your son saw the plane at basically the smae time, and obviously you were in the same location.
Heath:
(6) John 2: 2-8. "And both Jesus was called, and his disciples, to the marriage. And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto him, they have no wine. Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come. His mother saith unto the servants, Whatsoever he saith unto you, do it. And there were set there six waterpots of stone, after the manner of the purifying of the Jews, containing two or three firkins apiece. Jesus saith unto them, fill the waterpots with water. And they filled them up to the brim. And he saith unto them, draweth out now, and bear unto the governor of the feast." At a Jewish wedding the guests cannot give orders. By Hebrew law and courtesy only the groom, the grooms mother, and the governer can give orders. (This was before Jesus was a well-known "miracle worker.")
You're suggesting this even is Jesus own wedding. But I cannot see due to time line. Luke introduces Mary Magdalene long after Jesus miracles are known. As it is, to run out of wine is very bad in Jewish tradition. People would have spoken about that, and considering Jesus is more thn mere man, not unusual he would take a commanding presence.
Heath:
I think there were a couple of other things, including the words that he used for her (like when he called his mother, "Woman" and God "Abba"). I'd have to check.
http://www.tektonics.org/jesusrudemom.html It was not rude for him to call his mother "woman"
Heath:
(7) If she is the same Mary of Bethany in John 11, then we can explain why Martha arose to greet Jesus and not Mary. Some scholars say she was sitting shiva according to Jewish custom. "Shiva" was when a woman was in mourning. Married women were not allowed to break-off from their mourning unless called by their husbands. In this story, Mary does not come to Jesus, until He calls her.
If? and
if she's not, it's totally invalid. There are 7 Mary's mentioned in bible, it could be confusing.
Heath:
(8) The Greek word for "woman" and "wife" is the same. Translators must rely upon the context in deciding how to translate it. Sometimes, the translation is arbitrary. When Mary is referred to as a "woman" who followed Jesus, it can just as easily be translated as "wife".
Well, then the number of times Jesus used the word, woman, could just as easily been used for the other women, he called woman. Jesus could easily be married to several women, as Mary Magdalene. Why pick Magdalene as the wife?
Heath:
(9) The story of Mary with the alabaster jar anointing the feet of Jesus is cited by some scholars as the most direct witness to their marriage. It is in all four Gospels and was a story in which Jesus gave express command that it be preserved. This ceremony was an ancient one among many royal houses in the ancient world, which sealed the marital union between the king and his priestess spouse. We find it mentioned briefly in the Song of Solomon. Although we may not understand its significance, Jesus and Mary knew exactly what they were doing. To be the valid Messiah, He had to be anointed first by the Bride. They were by-passing the corrupt Jewish establishment.
The only problem with this, is this is written in Luke 7:36-50. What makes it unlikely , is that Mary is first introduced in Luke 8:2. In Luke 8:1, it specifically says, "after this" (the events from Luke 7) Jesus travelled among the towns and villages., where he met Mary Magdalene, (among other women).
Heath:
(10) At the Resurrection, when Mary meets Jesus in the Garden, there is a degree of intimacy (see the Aramaic here) which one would expect between lovers, not friends.
Oddly enough, in the english I read, I see nothing suggestive. When you ask us to look at the aramic, you provide none either.
Heath, the points you have were selected, and information purposely left out to draw a conclusion. There is not a "strong" argument for Mary Magdalene to be married to Jesus. No stronger than Jesus being married to any woman.