No, I don't buy that argument. The LDS rule did not change because polygamy is immoral. The rule changed because the purpose for the polygamy ceased to exist, which means that the reason for it to exist (or a new reason) may arise in the future, and polygamy would be reinstated. That's very different from saying that it changed because it was found to be wrong. No one in the LDS church thinks that Abraham and those guys were sinning at all in their polygynous relationships.
(Also, polygamy in the LDS practice was restricted to those who were found worthy of handling such a relationship without sinking into lasciviousness or inability to a wife. In other words, polygyny is a higher law than monogamy. Right now, we are not allowed to partake of that higher law. It will be reinstated when Christ returns.)
Further, polygyny still exists to a limited extent in the LDS church, which recognizes two types of marriage -- marriage for time (i.e. till death do you part) and marriage for all eternity (i.e. eternal marriage). You are not currently allowed to have two living wives, but if one wife dies and you remarry, both wives are eternal and therefore the plural marriage will exist after the resurrection and continue forever after.
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Regarding your other points, what version of the Bible are you using? It certainly doesn't appear to be the KJV or NIV.
quote:
Corinthians 7:2 But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband.
KJV: "Nevertheless, [to avoid] fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband."
As you can see, this says simply that marriage is good and fornication is bad. Nothing about monogamy.
quote:
Matthew 19:5 and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’
And repeated in Mark 10:8 and the two will become one flesh.’So they are no longer two, but one.
How do these passages have anything to do with monogamy or polygamy?
The last cite I pointed to says:
quote:
If anything, I think the emphasis of these verses is not on monogyny, but on being married in general, especially since neither Moses, nor any of the other Old Testament saints who came after him, seemed to see any contradiction between »they shall be one flesh« and a man having several wives.
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The principle is not the number of wives, but the preference for these leaders to be married and to be holy, having handled those relationships according to the will of God. This is very much the focus of Paul's recommendations for bishops, elders, and deacons. The commandment here only applied to the high priest. And it is a positive commandment, commanding the high priest to take a wife, and specifying the kind of wife he was to take. The indefinite article 'a' (according to the CVOT) is not present in the Hebrew, so that the verse can read "he shall take wife in her virginity". In any case, there is no limitation on the number of wives in this regulation